Friday, November 9, 2007

Synopsis on Romans (Part 1 - Chapters 1-2)

I recently had a rather short but invigorating discussion with Chris Tilling on the nature of many things, some theological such as the atonement, but also in regards to more important matters such as the evil that is coffee, tea (except green tea), and chocolate (Chris is still in a poor, pitiful, depraved state when it comes to proper knowledge about the evil of such things. I blame it on Wright). But among other things, we also talked about the whole "righteousness of God" thing and the blasphemous assertions that N.T. Wright makes about it (oh wait... I forget, I am not John Piper!). At which point, he then begged me to enlighten the world with my oh so great wisdom regarding the topic, to correct the errors of the Wrightianists and the Piperians.

Seriously though, Romans has been a letter I have studied for a few years now since it has been made such a pivotal part of Christian theology. I have come to a somewhat different understanding on the book because of what I found to be weaknesses with both the classical Reformed view and the New Perspective view. I have even gone to the point of having the inspiration to write a commentary down the road on the book once I get a grasp of Greek to enlighten to world (though I might instead bring it into darkness). So I am going to give a summary of my view on what I believe Paul is talking about in Romans. By implication, it will address the book of Galatians, but I am not pursuing that mainly because Paul addresses somewhat different questions which would only obscure this series.

Before starting though, let me mention that I have written two posts in the past on Romans (which you can read here and here).

I believe the book of Romans can be divided into 5 sections. Chapters 1-2 discuss the issues of sin and righteousness. Chapters 3-6 discuss the righteousness of God vs the Law of Moses, faith, and the redemption that is in Christ. Chapters 7-8 is kind of a miscellaneous section, though one might say it a development of a person from being under the Law, to being freed by Christ, to having the benefits of the Spirit working in their lives, to looking for the hope of complete redemption (including the creation and the body) and to endure in the face of sufferings because of what is to come. Chapters 9-11 is focused upon the situation with Israel. Finally, chapters 12-16 is focused primarily upon practical matters of behavior. This post will focus upon Chapters 1-2.

Chapter 1 has a contrast between verses 16-17 and 18-32. In the former, Paul explains the nature of the Gospel is power is for that who believe and that God's righteousness is revealed by faith, likewise, to those who trust God (I ascribe to the meaning of faith in Romans the meaning of trust in God, especially to fulfill His promises and to be merciful, and not merely intellectual and creedal acceptance). These two verses I believe set up the primary issues through which Paul develops in the following chapters: the power that is present in salvation and the way that God's righteousness is shown to the world.

The first is rather self-explanatory, but let me clarify my meaning about God's righteousness. Wright says this refers to the covenant faithfulness of God. On the other hand, Piper maintains that it is God's commitment to do what is right. On a purely technical definition that Paul is giving this phrase, I will agree with Piper's assessment more or less. He even goes on to state it is something that we should have but that we do not, and I will agree that in a "natural" state we will not. However, in the end where most Reformed theologians will take that (and I am sure Piper does being Reformed, though I haven't read through his works on the matter) is to say that Christ's righteousness (therefore God's righteousness) is imputed to believers. I, on the other hand, would ascribe that Paul is trying to emphasize the moral standard which we as Christians are to live by in this world (to have a righteousness/perfection like God; see Leviticus 19:2 and Matthew 5:48). Furthermore, the nature of God's righteousness is shown to those who trust God by others who have trust in God (most perfectly by Jesus Christ's trust in God, which I will go into in my next section).

Paul then goes on to contrast the gospel and God's righteousness with the wrath that comes upon "the ungodliness and unrighteousness of men" (vs. 18). First off, the contrast is between the gospel and wrath and "the righteousness of God" and "ungodliness and unrighteousness." So this is one reason why I ascribe a moral connotation to "the righteousness of God." Secondly though, Paul describes the further and further falling into depravity that certain man came into in a step by step process. With each act of disobedience, God gave the sinners into a deeper level of sinfulness (which could also be referring to as hardening, which is discussed in Romans 9).

Now this is speculation on my part that I am not as confident in, but it may be possible that Paul was purposely just building up the wickedness and depravity of these people (they were probably Gentiles) further and further in order to get some of his Jewish audience to get into an emotional state of presumably righteous indignation against such disobedience. But then all of the sudden, Paul turns the tables in Chapter 2. All those people who were condemning such wickedness, Paul shows to be condemned because they do the exact same thing without repentance. Many of the readers were not better off than those people whom Paul had described and so, unless they repented, would have the same punishment brought upon them. Now Paul doesn't explicitly state that he is directed this towards Jews, because it is probably his purpose at least in part to apply this to everyone who might be such hypocrites, but no doubt Paul had the Jewish population particular, as we can see when we look at what Paul states later on in this chapter.

Paul explains that there will be a judgment of everyone's deeds and that there will be no partiality for the Jews in this judgment. Everyone who desires good will receive eternal life, whereas everyone who obeys unrighteousness will receive wrath (the same wrath as mentioned in Romans 1:18). However, not merely is the same standard applied to everyone, but it is applied to the Jews first and then the Greek (and all Gentiles). Salvation is for the Jews, and so they are first in line, so to speak, to receive the blessings. But likewise, because they have such a privileged position, they will also be the first to receive punishment for which they had done (I will develop the meaning of this concept further in the post on 9-11).

Moving further, the impartial judgment is described in terms of the Law (the Law of Moses to be specific). Everyone who has the Law will be condemned (that is, to be sentenced to death) by it if they disobey it, and everyone who do not have the Law will also be put to death even though they don't have the law. The conclusion that is to be drawn then is that it is the ones who have and follow the Law that are deemed as righteous (justified) by God. Justification/acceptance by God is not automatic by merely having knowledge of the Law (and therefore by implication, by being a Jew).

But there may be a question (though Paul doesn't explicitly state it) as to whether the judgment is really impartial because if the Gentiles perish without the Law, and the Jews perish with the Law, does that mean then that there are different standards, therefore there is some partiality? Paul states that some of the Gentiles instinctively do the things of the Law and therefore have a law in themselves. In other word, the same basic things that are contained in the Law of Moses, the rest of the world has because, as Romans 1:20 says, God's qualities can be seen by the world (although, I would add, maybe not perfectly). The implication is that people have a conscience that can condemn or defend them when Jesus comes to judge.

At this point then, Paul asks those who are Jews that boast in God, have the Law, and feel they can instruct the blind if they do the same thing they teach. Many of them don't, and as a result they are part of the reason that the Gentiles blaspheme God. Now, Paul states that circumcision (which can stand for the whole Jewish system) is of no value itself if there is one does not in turn practice things of the Law. Therefore, the person who is true Jew in meaning and the one who is truly circumcised (circumcised in the heart) are those who keep the Law and so is inwardly a Jew and not only a Jew by name, since God's people were to be obedient. Paul concludes this chapter with two things: 1) that this circumcision was by the Spirit instead of by the letter of the Law (more specifically by the standards set forth in the Law of Moses in writing) and 2) that these people do not seek to be praised by men (or in other words, to be seen as good teachers as is implied by the context) but rather to be praised by God).

A couple of comments to add about Romans 2:13 before I conclude this post. First off, as is indicated by context, justification is referring to the character of the person. This has implications for the following usages of the word because it would be problematic to assign a fluid usage of the word where it means a declaration of character in one part, but soon after it means something significantly different. Secondly, there may seem to be a conflict between this verse and the teachings laid out in Romans 3-4. However, if one notes the context, the idea is doing what was intended by the Law, the very intent of the Law (or the spirit of the Law), whereas in Romans 3-4 it is referring to trying to be justified by a strict observance of the letter of the Law (as mentioned in 2:29). Certainly, Paul did not mean to say those that did not have the Law but did the things of it follow the strict, literal things prescribed in the Law of Moses, because how can we expect them to have such a detailed knowledge of something they never saw?

And so that concludes my synopsis on the first two chapters. I find that these two chapters set the stage for the following chapters (as one might expect), such as the way righteousness is revealed, the power in salvation (although those two are mentioned only briefly), justification, the problem of sin, issues regarding the Law, and the meaning of being a Jew. All these issues are thoroughly addressed by Paul in the following chapters. Therefore, in my future posts, I will probably reference heavily these two chapters just to give the context of the letter.

7 comments:

Unknown said...

Owen,

You said, "...let me clarify my meaning about God's righteousness. Wright says this refers to the covenant faithfulness of God. On the other hand, Piper maintains that it is God's commitment to do what is right."

I think Piper's idea is included in Wright's, but not vice versa. I think it's safe to say that Wright believes "what is right" is for God to be faithful to his covenant. In other words, God is committed to doing what is right, but doing what is right is being faithful to His covenant. To quote George Ladd (481 from A Theology of the New Testament), "Basically, 'righteousness' is a concept of relationship. A person is righteous who has fulfilled the demands laid upon him or her by the relationship in which that person stands. It is not a word designating person ethical character, but faithfulness to a relationship." Ladd's notion here, I think, is basically the same as Wright's because our "relationship" with God is mediated through a covenant which defines the terms of the relationship. I appears that Wright is eager to maintain a covenant understanding of Paul's thought whereas Piper is not (at least not as eager as Wright is).

What do you think?

Owen Weddle said...

I have not read enough to be very qualified to answer that question. However, what I would say though is that while Wright's view may encompass Piper, they have a different emphasis on "the righteousness of God" which has many exegetical implications. While Wright can perhaps include the teachings that Piper has about God's righteousness, his view can not encompass Piper's view in the realm of exegesis. But again, I haven't read a lot of Piper on justifiction other than snippers here and there and I have read some on Wright, but not enough to be an expert.

Also, I would have to disagree that righteousness is a concept of relationship. I do think that righteousness has implications of a relationship, when speaking of the definition of righteousness, I would have to say it is used in references to character or nature. Now, part of the center of our relationship with God includes righteousness, so it does have implications for it. However, when God justifies someone, it means He deems them has having a righteous character (and notice I have not said righteous works) and so they are not enemies of God and hostile to what He purposes for us, and therefore a righteous person would then have a relationship with God.

Unknown said...

To explain a bit more of Ladd's reasoning let me quote at length, (page 480 from A Theology of the New Testament):

"The Pauline doctrine of Justification can be understood only against an Old Testament background...The versb translated "to justify" is sadaq...scholars generally agree that the basic idea is conformity to a norm...The Greek word "to justify is dikaioo. The noun dikaiosyne can be translated by the word "justification" (Gal. 2:21), but it is usually translated "righteousness." The adjective dikaois may be translated either "just" or "righteous." some scholars, especially in the Catholic tradition, have insested that the meaning of dikaioo is "to make righteous" and dikaiosyne designates the ethical quality of righteousness. However, the majority of contemporary scholars understand justification to involve a relationship rather than an ethical quality, and the distinctive Pauline meaning is "to be right with God"...The background for the Pauline doctrine is the Old Testament. Righteousness (sedeq, sedaqa) in the Old Testament is not primarily an ethical quality. The basic meaning of the word is "that norm in the affairs of the world to which men and things should conform, and by which they can be measured." One who is righteous (saddiq) is one who conforms to the given norm. The verb "to be righteous" (sadaq) means to conform to the given norm, and in certain forms, especially in the hiphil, it means "to declare righteous" or "to justify."

Then from 481 (right after the quotation from my first comment):

"...Righteousness is the standard God has decreed for human conduct. The righteous person is the one who is in God's judgment meets the divine standard and thus stands in a right relationship with God. The norm of righteousness depends entirely on the nature of God. Ultimately it is only God who can decide if a person has met the norm that he decreed for human righteousness...The idea of righteousness is often understood in a forensic context: the righteous person is the one whom the judge declares to be free from guilt. It is the business of the judge to acquit the innocent and condemn the guilty (Deut. 25:1; see also 1 Kings 8:32). God is often pictured as the judge of human beings (Ps. 9:4, 33:5; Jer. 11:20). The verb appears almost exclusively in the forensic sense. An individual is righteous who is judged to be in the right (Exod. 23:7; Deut. 25:1), i.e., who in judgment through acquittal thus stands in a right relationship with God. Some Old Testament scholars feel that this is the primary connotation of the term. 'When applied to the conduct of God the concept is narrowed and almost exclusively employed in a forensic sense.'"

Then on 482-483:

"One of the most important facts that will provide an understanding of the Pauline doctrine is that justification is an eschatological doctrine. We have seen that in Judaism people will be judged according to their works in the last judgment. God is the righteous lawgiver and judge; and it is only in the final judgment when God will render a judicial verdict upon each person that the individual's righteousness or unrighteousness will be finally determined. Only God, who has set the norm for human conduct, can determine whether a person has met that norm and is therefore righteous. The issue of the final judgment will either be a declaration of righteousness that will mean acquittal from all guilt, or a conviction of unrighteousness and subsequent condemnation. The essential meaning of justification, therefore, is forensic and involves acquittal by the righteous judge...This eschatological significance of justification is seen in several uses of the word dikaioo. When Paul says, 'Who shall bring any charge against God's elect? It is God who justifies; who is to condemn?' (Rom. 8:33,34), he is looking forward to the final judgment when God's verdict of acquittal cannot be set aside by anyone who would bring an accusation that might result in condemnation. When we read that it is not the hearers of the Law who in God's sight are righteous by only the doers of the Law who will be justified, we must look forward to the day of judgment when God will issue a verdict on the conduct of humankind in terms of obedience or disobedience to the Law (Rom. 2:13). The temporal orientation of he words 'by one man's obedience many will be made righteous' (Rom 5:19) is the future judgment when God will pronounce the verdict of righteousness on the many. The 'hope of righteousness' for which we wait is the judicial pronouncement of righteousness, i.e., the expectation of acquittal in the day of judgment (Gal. 5:5)...In the eschatological understanding of justification, as well as in its forensic aspect, the Pauline doctrine agrees with that of contemporary Jewish thought. However, there are several points at which the Pauline teaching is radically different from the Jewish concept; and one of the essential differences is that the future eschatological justification has already taken place..."

I could go on, of course. There is a great deal to be said about the intricacies of the eschatological nature of justification. I would point you to a series of posts (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7) that Ardel Caneday made over the last year or so to explore more.

I also found this article helpful.

I apologize for the length of this post. I have been deeply researching these concepts recently for the first time.

I don't post all this to convince you of my position because I don't have a set position yet. I post this to get your perspective. Most of what I have read emphasizes the forensic rather than the ethical aspect of "righteousness." If you have articles which do the opposite I would be glad to read them.

I look forward to reading your thoughts.

Owen Weddle said...

I will respond in more detail tomorrow, but I don't deny there is no forensic sense. When I mean justification has an ethical character to it, I mean in opposition to the idea that it is referring to an acquittal or that it is referring to something imputed to our account.

I do not take the Catholic sense of saying "to make righteous." The word is a matter of declaration and not a change of character (of course the declaration can come from a change of character).

A way that might make my point a bit clearer is to look at the difference in the ideas of "to be righteous" and "to be justified." "To be righteous" is to have a righteous character, whereas "to be justified" is to be DECLARED as having a righteous character.

I don't have any articles stash away on this. It is something I have just studied from the words in their contexts. I can explain my reasoning in detail if you desire.

Unknown said...

Owen, you said, "...I don't deny there is no forensic sense...I mean in opposition to the idea that it is referring to an acquittal." In my view, the "forensic sense" means acquittal. "Forensic" essentially means "dealing with the law court" and "acquittal" is exactly that - law court language. Therefore, it seems to me that you are denying the forensic sense of justification, albeit not intentionally. Am I wrong here?

The material I have been reading would define "justification" as (my paraphrase) "the (forensic) declaration by the judge that the defendant is in the right." In other words, it is a legal acquittal. Likewise, "righteousness" would be (again, my paraphrase), "the status of 'righteous' given by the judge - the result of justification."

As you can see, neither of the previous definitions involves "ethical" or "moral" character because the definitions are forensically focused, not character focused.

I'm guessing you would disagree with these definitions? Can you explain your reasoning in more detail?

Owen Weddle said...

"The material I have been reading would define "justification" as (my paraphrase) "the (forensic) declaration by the judge that the defendant is in the right." In other words, it is a legal acquittal. Likewise, "righteousness" would be (again, my paraphrase), "the status of 'righteous' given by the judge - the result of justification."

Alright. Lets envision a hypothetical court case. A person has been framed for a crime. They in fact did nothing wrong. So, the judge "justifies" them. It is a declaration that their actions were righteous, that is, they did no wrong. The forensic sense does not deny the character, although trials are usually centered around one action.

Now extend to all the deeds of a person's life. Romans 2 talks about the judgment according to our deeds, and then refers to the doers of the Law being justified by God. Justification is still in a judgment setting, but instead it is talking about the course of one's whole life (but there is the inclusion of the forgiveness of evil deeds). In this sense, justification is forensic/legal but it entails the ethical.

Matter of fact, this is the more natural way to take it rather than saying justification is a "legal righteousness" with no regards for what deeds were committed. I've never done an extensive look up of the word in other ancient uses (only from the Lidell-Scott lexicon) but I don't think it was ever really used to speak of a legal righteousness where at the center of the question was whether a person committed certain deeds or not. So the forensic must include the ethical, whether it be for one action or over a longer period of time.

Owen Weddle said...

BTW apologies for the little depth in my responses. I was busier than anticipated this weekend and I have gotten sick as the day as passed along.