"The power of death" - Hebrews 2:14

Hebrews 2:14 -

Since, therefore, the children share flesh and blood, he himself likewise shared the same things, so that through death he might render powerless the one who has the power of death, that is, the devil

This early morning, I was pondering this phrase. It has long troubled me in a person who was very familiar with the Old Testament attributing to Satan the ability to control death. Doesn't God decide who dies? Can Satan really bring certain people to death? Why then did Satan have to ask permission from God to afflict Job, but was forbidden to kill him (the author of Hebrews was most probably familiar with Job)?

But then I go back to my basic knowledge of the genitive in Greek and how this could potentially be understood differently. Tradtionally, it is taken as the death being the power that is had. However, it could be understood alternatively as "death's power" or more dynamically "the power from death" (though it probably shouldn't be translated specifically as an ablative). If this is indeed a viable understanding, then it would place not death in the power of the devil, but the rather a result of death in the power of the devil. According to my theology, death (and pain and suffering in addition) leads us to become sinners when we choose for our own safety and well being (out of fear), which often times comes at the costs of others and God will (which makes it sin). Thus, the sinfulness gives place in our hearts for Satan to rule over us. And in that way, I naturally saw death leading to sin and the power of Satan over humanity. In other words, power in fact refers to control.

But despite my theology and theological objections, I can not ignore exegesis as the primary arbiter of the proper interpretation and translation.

There is the genitive usage in the following verse in "fear of death." Should we maintain consistency with the genitive? Probably so, although I have wondered if Hebrews 2:14-15 was in fact poetry or something to that effect, in which a fluid usage is more acceptable. Ultimately, we should have to not rely on the notion without greater evidence. Also though, we may considering reunderstanding "fear of death" as "death's fear" or "the fear that comes from death." In this scenario, death would be seen as the source of the world's problems but not the ultimate problem. By Jesus' death, He then destroys the problems created by death (namely the control of the devil over people and fear)

However, this understanding is perhaps a little bit more strained and awkward.

Anyone with an exegetical mind that might be willing to comment on this? I am still inclined to the traditional interpretation, simply because I can not find significant enough evidence to validate the newer understanding with a bit more of a strained reading.